Answer:
it is less than zx for set b.
Step-by-step explanation:
The z-score of a data value is the number of standard deviations it is away from the mean.
The mean of both set a and set b is the same.
The standard deviation of set a is larger than that of set b. This means that for any given data point in set a, it will be fewer standard deviations away from the mean than it would be in set b. This makes the second choice true.
The true statement about the zx of set a is that (b) it is less than zx for set b.
Data values are the individual elements that make a dataset
From the question, we have:
The z score of a dataset is calculated as:
[tex]z = \frac{x - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]
For set a, we have:
[tex]z_a = \frac{x - \mu}{\sigma_a}[/tex]
For set b, we have:
[tex]z_b = \frac{x - \mu}{\sigma_b}[/tex]
Since the standard deviation of set a is greater than the standard deviation of set b, then we have:
[tex]z_a < z_b[/tex]
Hence, the zx of set a is less than zx for set b.
Read more about z-scores at:
https://brainly.com/question/25638875
