Answer:
The y-intercept of f(x) is greater than the y-intercept of g(x) .
Step-by-step explanation:
Consider the provided function.
The table shows the function g(x).
The y-intercept is the value of the function when the value of x is zero.
From the table we can concluded that the y intercept is 0.
The y intercept of the function g(x) is zero.
Now consider the function [tex]f(x)=2^{4x}[/tex]
Substitute x=0 in above function.
[tex]f(x)=2^{4\times 0}[/tex]
[tex]f(x)=2^{0}[/tex]
[tex]f(x)=1[/tex]
The y intercept of the function f(x) is 1.
As we know; 1>0
Hence, the y-intercept of f(x) is greater than the y-intercept of g(x) .