Copied and pasted from a page about Bernoulli trials. I think it's safe to assume the properties are the same because a binomial experiment is a sequence of Bernoulli trials. (but I'm not an expert)
There are only two outcomes a 1 or 0, i.e., success or failure each time.
If the probability of success is p then the probability of failure is 1-p and this remains the same across each successive trial.
The probabilites are not affected by the outcomes of other trials which means the trials are independent.
