Amram Inc. can issue a 20-year bond with a 6% annual coupon at par. This bond is not convertible, not callable, and has no sinking fund. Alternatively, Amram could issue a 20-year bond that is convertible into common equity, may be called, and has a sinking fund. What most accurately describes the coupon rate that Amram would have to pay on the second bond, the convertible, callable bond with the sinking fund, to have it sell initially at par?

Respuesta :

Answer:

b. It could be less than, equal to, or greater than 6%.

Explanation:

THIS ARE THE OPTIONS FOR THE QUESTION BELOW!

a. Exactly equal to 6%.

b. It could be less than, equal to, or greater than 6%.

c. Greater than 6%.

d. Exactly equal to 8%.

e. Less than 6%.

Convertible bonds can be regarded as one which can be converted to equity shares at a particular time, so in this case, Base on specific terms set the coupon rate can be equal, greater even less than 6%, talking of real world, the feature of the convertible could make the coupon rate to be probably less than 6%.

Convertible bonds are considered as the bonds that can be converted into stock within a certain time frame. The particular bondholders have right convert their bonds into equity by selling their bonds according to corporation's designated timeframe.

The coupon rate could be less than, equal to, or greater than 6%, depending on the specific terms set.

Amram Inc. is issuing two bonds, one of which is non-convertible and the other of which is convertible but not callable. Convertible and callable bonds will nearly always have a lower coupon rate than non-convertible or non-callable bonds, regardless of the coupon rate they intend to set.

To know more about coupon rate, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/6959763

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