Respuesta :
Answer:
a) P(X = 0) for raisins = 0.33287
b) P(X = 2) for chocolate chips = 0.14379
c) P(X ≥ 2) for both bits = 0.59399
Step-by-step explanation:
The average amount of raisin per cookie is 600/500 = 1.2
The average amount of chocolate chips per cookie = 400/500 = 0.8
a) Using Poisson's distribution function
P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!
For raisin, Mean = λ = 1.1
x = 0
P(X = 0) = (e⁻¹•¹)(1.1⁰)/(0!) = 0.33287
b) Using Poisson's distribution function
P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!
For chocolate chips, Mean = λ = 0.8
x = 2
P(X = 2) = (e⁻⁰•⁸)(0.8²)/(2!) = 0.14379
c) the probability that a randomly chosen cookie will have at least two bits (raisins or chips) in it.
For this, the average number of bit in a raisin = (600+400)/500 = 2 bits per raisin.
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - [P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)]
For P(X = 0)
P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!
Mean = λ = 2
x = 0
P(X = 0) = (e⁻²)(2⁰)/(0!) = 0.13534
For P(X = 1)
P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!
Mean = λ = 2
x = 1
P(X = 1) = (e⁻²)(2¹)/(1!) = 0.27067
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - [P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)]
P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - (0.13534 + 0.27067) = 1 - 0.40601 = 0.59399
Using the Poisson distribution, it is found that there is a:
a) 0.3012 = 30.12% probability that a randomly picked cookie will have exactly two chocolate chips.
b) 0.1438 = 14.38% probability that a randomly picked cookie will have exactly two chocolate chips.
c) 0.594 = 59.4% probability that a randomly chosen cookie will have at least two bits (raisins or chips) in it.
In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by:
[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes
- e = 2.71828 is the Euler number
- [tex]\mu[/tex] is the mean in the given interval.
Item a:
600 raisins in 500 cookies, hence, the mean is:
[tex]\mu = \frac{600}{500} = 1.2[/tex]
The probability is P(X = 0), hence:
[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.2}1.2^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3012[/tex]
0.3012 = 30.12% probability that a randomly picked cookie will have exactly two chocolate chips.
Item b:
400 chips in 500 cookies, hence, the mean is:
[tex]\mu = \frac{400}{500} = 0.8[/tex]
The probability is P(X = 2), hence:
[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-0.8}0.8^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.1438[/tex]
0.1438 = 14.38% probability that a randomly picked cookie will have exactly two chocolate chips.
Item c:
1000 bits, as 600 + 400 = 1000, in 500 cookies, hence, the mean is:
[tex]\mu = \frac{1000}{500} = 2[/tex]
The probability is:
[tex]P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)[/tex]
In which:
[tex]P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)[/tex]
[tex]P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}\mu^{x}}{(x)!}[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-2}2^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1353[/tex]
[tex]P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-2}2^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2707[/tex]
Hence:
[tex]P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.1353 + 0.2707 = 0.4060[/tex]
[tex]P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.406 = 0.594[/tex]
0.594 = 59.4% probability that a randomly chosen cookie will have at least two bits (raisins or chips) in it.
A similar problem is given at https://brainly.com/question/16912674
