Answer:
False
Explanation:
The torque exerted by a force is given by:
[tex]\tau=Fd sin \theta[/tex]
where
F is the magnitude of the force
d is the distance between the point of application of the force and the pivot
[tex]\theta[/tex] is the angle between the directions of F and d
We see that the magnitude of the torque depends on 3 factors. In this problem, we have 2 forces of equal magnitude (so, equal F). Moreover, one of the forces (let's call it force 1) acts farther from the pivot than force 2, so we have
[tex]d_1 > d_2[/tex]
However, this does not mean that force 1 produces a greater torque. In fact, it also depends on the angle at which the force is applied. For instance, if the first force is applied parallel to d, then we have
[tex]\theta_1 =0\\sin \theta=0[/tex]
and the torque produced by this force would be zero.
So, the statement is false.
