suppose there are two markets selling the same good located in seattle and dallas, respectively. given the following information: 1) the price of good is $4 in seattle, and $5 in dallas. 2) assuming perfect information and sufficient low cost of transporting, basically we are assuming a frictionless trade between these two markets. answer the following questions: 1) why is the arbitrage impossible under the law of one price?(7pts) 2) how this law of one price relates to the purchasing power parity theory?(10pts)